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by Michy » Mon November 8th, 2010, 7:03 pm
Just wondering -- to be truly considered "anorexia nervosa", does the self-starvation have to be in conjunction with a distorted body image? That is, the female perceiving herself as "fat" regardless of how thin she truly is?
If that is the case, then I think anorexia (and bulimia) as we know them today are fairly modern phenomena, brought on by the modern perception of extreme thin-ness as a beauty ideal.
That's not to say that women all throughout the ages haven't "starved" themselves for a number of reasons, some of which have already been mentioned such as an association with piousness. And of course, deep depression has been a cause for loss of appetite and interest in food since the dawn of human existence.
I could see Katherine having poor eating habits due to these or any other number of things. But to call it anorexia -- she was starving herself because of a distorted body image and desire to become unnaturally thin -- I would have a hard time believing that of a Medieval woman.
Of course, maybe anorexia is simply self-starvation, regardless of the reason. In that case, yes, it would be conceivable that she had anorexia. And no doubt hundreds of other historical women, as well.
ETA: I should clarify that the diagnosis of anorexia can also be applied to females who are strongly motivated to stay unnaturally small and/or thin, but who don't necessarily suffer from a distorted body image (ballerinas and gymnasts come to mind). Even so, I still can't see Katherine of Aragon or any other woman of her time starving herself for the purpose of being thin. It just doesn't fit with what I know of the medieval mindset (although, admittedly I am no scholar). Why would she have wanted to be thin?
Last edited by
Michy on Mon November 8th, 2010, 7:19 pm, edited 2 times in total.